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There's something which has been haunting me for the last few years.

One night during intimacy, I noticed a foul odour from my wife's vagina. This went on for a few months despite her best attempts to clean it thoroughly.

During a subsequent visit to a gynae, the doctor noticed this and said she had an infection after which he prescribed some medication and means of treatment (which worked).

During this visit, he said he wanted to speak to me alone and asked, "Do you have another woman? Have you been seeing prostitutes?", to which of course I said no. I definitely did not have an affair or pay any prostitutes for sex. The doctor was implying that she may have had an STD.

Having found the doctor's suspicion's quite amusing given my lack of infidelity, I actually told my wife after what the doctor had asked me. So I said, if it's not me, is it you, then? To which she said, no.

We both then wondered if the infection could have been caused by a number of miscarriages, maybe due to tissue matter from the miscarriage? I don't know. Is that possible?
 

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Surely he would have prescribed some drugs for you?

Don't you have to notify someone if you have had an STD?

Or is that only with life threatening STD's
 

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Surely he would have prescribed some drugs for you?

Don't you have to notify someone if you have had an STD?

Or is that only with life threatening STD's
A doctor will never tell a spouse about an STD unless the other spouse gives him permission. Some states require STDs like HIV be reported to the Public Health officials, which will then sometimes notify the patient's sex partners. But a doctor doesn't have the right to pull the spouse aside and give them a heads up.
 

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Could be nothing or could be something. Maybe you should start some mild snooping, if for nothing else but to put your mind at ease. If your wife told the Doctor she had another man, the Doctor is under obligation not to tell you so it's going to be all up to you to give your mind peace.
 

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I must admit I would be suspicious. With the Doc asking you about other women etc.
 

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There's something which has been haunting me for the last few years.

One night during intimacy, I noticed a foul odour from my wife's vagina. This went on for a few months despite her best attempts to clean it thoroughly.

During a subsequent visit to a gynae, the doctor noticed this and said she had an infection after which he prescribed some medication and means of treatment (which worked).

During this visit, he said he wanted to speak to me alone and asked, "Do you have another woman? Have you been seeing prostitutes?", to which of course I said no. I definitely did not have an affair or pay any prostitutes for sex. The doctor was implying that she may have had an STD.

Having found the doctor's suspicion's quite amusing given my lack of infidelity, I actually told my wife after what the doctor had asked me. So I said, if it's not me, is it you, then? To which she said, no.

We both then wondered if the infection could have been caused by a number of miscarriages, maybe due to tissue matter from the miscarriage? I don't know. Is that possible?
I think the doctor told you in the only way he felt he legally could. She needs to show you what she was treated for. You should also be tested.

This said your other threads sound like you are looking for an excuse to divorce her.
 

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I think the doctor told you in the only way he felt he legally could. She needs to show you what she was treated for. You should also be tested.
:iagree:
 

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I personally don't think any doctor can legally take you aside and ask you that?

So I think maybe, he asked your wife if she'd had any unprotected sex over X amount of years and she's said 'no'......so he comes to you discreetly and asks you the same question.

It kind of points to one of you has been unfaithful and given her an STD.....so if you know it wasn't you, then it must have been your wife.

Even after miscarriages etc.. where, true she might have been left with an infection, it would never be treated in the same way as an STD.......and the doctor wouldn't be asking you if you'd visited a prostitute if the infection was even possibly a result of a miscarriage.

You need to sit her down and ask her directly....and/or request a polygraph!
 

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There's something which has been haunting me for the last few years.

One night during intimacy, I noticed a foul odour from my wife's vagina. This went on for a few months despite her best attempts to clean it thoroughly.

During a subsequent visit to a gynae, the doctor noticed this and said she had an infection after which he prescribed some medication and means of treatment (which worked).

During this visit, he said he wanted to speak to me alone and asked, "Do you have another woman? Have you been seeing prostitutes?", to which of course I said no. I definitely did not have an affair or pay any prostitutes for sex. The doctor was implying that she may have had an STD.

Having found the doctor's suspicion's quite amusing given my lack of infidelity, I actually told my wife after what the doctor had asked me. So I said, if it's not me, is it you, then? To which she said, no.

We both then wondered if the infection could have been caused by a number of miscarriages, maybe due to tissue matter from the miscarriage? I don't know. Is that possible?
If the doctor asked you this, he would have had to have the same conversation with your wife. Did she tell you that the doctor talked to her about you sleeping around, or did she tell you that he asked her about her sleeping around? If not, that is a huge red flag.

Entropy may be right about the doctor trying to let you know in the only way he could.

As far as possible causes, your wife would be able to share her own medical records with you if she so chose. Then you could find out what exactly the infection was and what the possible causes could be.

I also find it a red flag that your wife is not more interested in what could have caused her condition, just happy to take the meds and have it clear up. I would think that she would want to know how to prevent it from happening in the future. Unless she already knows how it happened, and you don't.
 

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The Doctor had every right to "investigate" the cause and source of the infection. So questioning the spouse was within the law.

The Doctor was telling you in a round about way that your wife has an STD. He was suggesting that if you have been faithful, you probably should get checked and treated also.

The Doctor knows the difference between a bacterial infection, a yeast infection, and a STD infection.

Your wife cheated. You should be tested.
 

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Did you have sex with your wife during that time? If so, did you get infected? If so, had she been reinfected by you?

You can always get a medical release consent form and have your wife sign. Take it to her doctor and ask for a copy of her record during that time period. From there you'll find out what the diagnosis was and the prescription she had. Then go from there.
 

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So what was the diagnosis? Just an infection?

Maybe he was narrowing down the probable causes or he was giving you a hint..
 

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Interesting subject. Many years ago me and my wife shared a doctor, and when I was there for hand injury, out of the blue, the doctor asked me if I was sleeping with other partners other then my spouse. gave me the sefe sex lecture and moved on. I said no and now all these years later it all makes sence now.

For those of you that don't know me , Mrs. the-guy was a serial cheater for years, and yes her box smells better now that she stopped screwing around.
 

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I also find it a red flag that your wife is not more interested in what could have caused her condition, just happy to take the meds and have it clear up. .
'

:iagree:

Ok, so my wife cheated a month ago. Literally 3 days later, she had something foul going on. I had her take a full STD test and the lab mailed it to her at our address. We opened the tests together (legally you cannot open it yourself) - and I saw with my own eyes she was negative for all the tests.

I've noticed that they can get really bad urinary and or yeast infections after messing around with other people - and/or make them much worse. This happened with another woman I dated and she cheated.
 

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Well, if she had an STD you would have been told and treated. That's kind of the fine line between HIPAA and what's right. They have to report it and contact all of her sexual partners in the last (lets say, 90 days) because they don't want an outbreak of an STD out in the community.

Chances are she probably had BV which is Bacterial Vaginosis. Women can have a discharge and a really foul odor assiocated with it. It's when there is a balance shift in the bacteria in the vagina. There's a build up of more bad bacteria than good. No one know for sure why women develop it. But, high on the list of why is probably douching too much.....and there's speculation that a new sexual partner or multiple partners could cause it. But men can't give a woman BV, so I don't know why a doctor would ask you about your sexual history.

The point is, any woman can develop BV and it's NORMAL and treatable. That's what I'm betting it was.
 
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